On Mon, Jun 11, 2018 at 7:47 PM, bing zhu <zhubohong12@gmail.com> wrote:

Dear Sir/Ma'am
How can i map a kernel virtual address to a user process's same virtual address ?is it possible ?
thank you for your time
best wishes!

Dear Bing

Just to clarify, what do you mean by "user process' same virtual address"?

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regards,

Mulyadi Santosa
Freelance Linux trainer and consultant

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